Lesson #4 "Prepare Ye the Way of the Lord"

Here is the interesting thing I thought about while pondering John the Baptist: Was baptism a new concept for the Jews at the time of John's teaching?

If so, John would have been viewed as a crazy man, teaching a doctrine that is new - teaching that in order for salvation, every man and woman must be baptized.

If not, then the Jews didn't keep a very good record of baptism.  In fact, there are no references to the word "baptism" according to the Topical Guide, in the Old Testament.  The first time the word "baptism" is used in scripture is in the New Testament.

But we learn from my favorite tool, the Bible Dictionary, about baptism in Old Testament time:
Baptism has always been practiced whenever the gospel of Jesus Christ has been on the earth and has been taught by men holding the holy priesthood who could administer the ordinances. Although there is some obscurity in the Bible as to the antiquity of baptism before the time of Jesus, from latter-day revelation it is clear that Adam was baptized (Moses 6:64–68) and that the patriarchs and prophets since his time have taught the gospel and administered the ordinances that pertain to the gospel. This includes both water baptism and the laying on of hands for the Holy Ghost (Moses 8:23–24). The Book of Mormon shows also that baptism was taught and practiced long before the coming of Jesus Christ (2 Ne. 31; Mosiah 18:8–17). In the N.T. Paul speaks of the children of Israel being baptized by Moses “in the cloud and in the sea” (1 Cor. 10:1–4). Noah and Abraham are spoken of as “preachers of righteousness,” which means they taught the gospel and administered its ordinances (Gal. 3:8; Heb. 4:1–2; 2 Pet. 2:5; cf. Moses 8:23–24).


We know that baptism can be performed by the Aaronic Priesthood, but the Gift of the Holy Ghost must be bestowed by someone holding the Melchizedek (I'd just like you to know I spelled that without looking it up - finally) Priesthood.  Thus, those who were able to baptize in the Old Testament usually always available, but since the people could not live under the higher law (Melchizedek Priesthood), it was taken away and I guess so was the ability to confer the Gift of the Holy Ghost?  Not sure that it is clear.  So, I am just wondering if baptism occured, when there were prophets that had the Melchizedek Priesthood, but it wasn't as common to the general public as it was after Christ came.


Also, those who held the Aaronic Priesthood needed to be in the lineage of Levi and needed to be worthy.  John the baptist was of the tribe of Levi and was also worthy and so was able under Jewish law to baptize the Savior.  When the Savior comes he restores the Melchizedek Priesthood to the Jews and they are therefore able to confer the Gift of the Holy Ghost and complete the baptism of water with the baptism of fire.


I have always found it interesting that it takes both Priesthoods to have a complete baptism.  It's almost as if it falls under the principle of "in the mouth of two or three witnesses" or the two used as a safeguard that the ordinance of baptism doesn't occur on a whim or is not treated lightly.